Major distraction prevented replying sooner. On Tue, 11 Mar 2008 16:22:08 -0700, "glen e. p. ropella" <gepr at tempusdictum.com> said: > > I pretty much agree with your comments about cultural universals, at least in so far as the term is intended to be used scientifically. Putting on my Wittgenstein (and postmodern deconstructivist) hat for a moment, the concept of a "cultural universal" is far more important in the philosopho-politico-moral language game than in the scientific language game. "No cultural universals" is the antidote to the disease of ethnocentrism and a slogan supporting the prime directive of cultural relativity. Most specifically, the phrase, is the counter to the advocacy of "natural law" and similar philosophical positions. Whenever an assertion is made of the sort, "no parents kill their own children, because 'mother love' is a natural law," the anthropologist counters with an example of a (usually more than one) culture that does precisely that. In this context, the abstraction vs. particulars of expression is precisely the point, because the particulars refute the abstraction - technically both abstractions, natural law and cultural universal. When it comes to eating children / your own children without changing their type category - sacrifice is probably not a good example. I have a recollection from college days, that societies that practiced cannabalism for survival, food was food without regard to parentage. You could make the same argument here - i.e. a category change from "child" to "food" - but it would be less compelling than than in the sacrifice example. In societies that practice ritual cannabalism and necro-cannabilism - there is no category change involved at all. In necro-cannabalism, in fact lineage is acknowledged and serves to set priorities - I get to consume the remains of my parents and children before the rest of the band gets their share. > > So, is that all you mean by "there are no cultural universals"? All you > mean is that cultural universals are always too abstract and can be > picked apart and shown to be (somewhat) local as they are applied and > made concrete? Yes, in a sense - but this admission is less than it seems. The domain of anthropology involves investigation of the abstract (world view, values, norms, beliefs, language) and the concrete (behavior, dress) and mixtures of both (kinship, ritual). When it comes to the concrete and mixed elements of culture, no one asserts universals - they would be patently false. It is only in the area of the abstract that such claims are made - in the form of "all cultures abhor murder." To deny cultural universals in this context is simply stating that in the areas of world view, values, norms, beliefs, and language there is no more universality across cultures in the abstract than there is in the concrete. Even if there appears to be syntactic commonality (all cultures believe in the supernatural) there is not semantic consistency, each culture "means" something different for the same syntactic expression. > Given that we have no predicate for biological vs. cultural, this seems > a bit sloppy on the part of the anthropologists. Not because of the > ambiguity in "cause", but because of the circular rhetoric of holding > all 3 premises simultaneously: 1) there are no cultural universals, 2) > if a cultural universal is apparent, it's likely biological, and 3) > there is no predicate to distinguish cultural vs. biological. It is not that there is no predicate, it is a case of insufficient evidence to decide how to apply the predicate. Anthropologists, like Biologists, have a very clear idea of what belongs in and out of their discipline coupled with a whole lot of things that might go one way or the other depending on the results of future research. If empirical data seems to suggest that a particular abstraction or concrete aspect of culture seems to be present in all cultures, the default assumption is the the commonality has a biological cause/origin. A corollary to this default - in cases where both an abstraction and a biological potential cause for the commonality, the biological is presumed to be the more reasonable explanation. (For example the Yanomami assertion that they are violent because there is a shortage of women - cultural explanation; juxtaposed with the assertion that the Yanomami are violent because there is a shortage of protein in their environment - biological explanation; the latter is presumed to be more reasonable.) Sometimes it takes time to sort this issue out. Biology has only recently started to provide the evidence that suggests "hardwired" causes/origins for common supernatural experiences - neuro-theology. The supposed "cultural" notions of beauty and sexual attractiveness have been shown to originate in biological universals like bilateral symmetry, and the ability to "smell" each other's immune systems. Some of the most interesting, and unresolved, data is found in very basic phenomenon. For example, color perception / color terms in language. Cultures have 2 - n color terms in their language: If they have exactly two terms they are always black and white (or equivalents like, warm and cold) If they have exactly three terms, the third term is always red - (B / W / R) If they have exactly four terms, the fourth is always green - (B / W / R / G) Five, the fifth is always brown - (B / W / R / G / Br) Six, purple - (B / W / R / G / Br / P) Seven, plus, no pattern. In the cases 1-6 terms, why the commonality? Biology in the form of occular perception? Unlikely. Natural Law? Possible, but unsatisfactory. Culture? Unlikely. davew > - -- > glen e. p. ropella, 971-219-3846, http://tempusdictum.com > I don't know why we are here, but I'm pretty sure that it is not in > order to enjoy ourselves. -- Ludwig Wittgenstein > > -----BEGIN PGP SIGNATURE----- > Version: GnuPG v1.4.6 (GNU/Linux) > Comment: Using GnuPG with Mozilla - http://enigmail.mozdev.org > > iD8DBQFH1xQgpVJZMHoGoM8RArcsAJ9fIvHs8uGga98snKX+eitWtlwMmACffqJa > ULuvgdH1LKA3vZbpKHfU3Jc= > =rKPk > -----END PGP SIGNATURE----- > > ============================================================ > FRIAM Applied Complexity Group listserv > Meets Fridays 9a-11:30 at cafe at St. John's College > lectures, archives, unsubscribe, maps at http://www.friam.org |
On Sun, Mar 16, 2008 at 02:06:40PM -0400, Prof David West wrote:
> > Some of the most interesting, and unresolved, data is found in very > basic phenomenon. For example, color perception / color terms in > language. Cultures have 2 - n color terms in their language: > If they have exactly two terms they are always black and white (or > equivalents like, warm and cold) > If they have exactly three terms, the third term is always red - (B > / W / R) > If they have exactly four terms, the fourth is always green - (B / > W / R / G) > Five, the fifth is always brown - (B / W / R / G / Br) > Six, purple - (B / W / R / G / Br / P) > Seven, plus, no pattern. > In the cases 1-6 terms, why the commonality? Biology in the form of > occular perception? Unlikely. Natural Law? Possible, but > unsatisfactory. Culture? Unlikely. > > > davew How many languages have just five or six terms? If only one, or are all closely related, there's your answer. There are physical explanations why red and green are the first couple - they are primary colours, and are also the colours of haemoglobin and chlorophyl, which are widely available pigments. Blue/Purple are pretty rare pigments, which is why they're considered the colour of royalty. Cheers -- ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- A/Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile) Mathematics UNSW SYDNEY 2052 hpcoder at hpcoders.com.au Australia http://www.hpcoders.com.au ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- |
Now that what I've been talking and warning about the danger of, and
explaining how to avoid, reduce the impact of or then mitigate, is happening, what I'm doing? It looks as if my 'job' of making any kind of learning about the systems phenomenon underlying it appear silly is finished, so I can end the extra time off I took to push every avenue I could find, and can now go back to work again. It seems I accepted a new job, to coordinate the architectural detailing of St. Patrick's Cathedral renovation starting Monday... so I'll again have something productive to do. :-) Stuff works in weird ways I guess. Where I got to was that the form of our models is conceptually different from the form of nature, in that nature has loads of independent parts with their own behaviors, so only a model of questions could ever be consistent with it, not a model of answers. So, for making models we can trust, it's inherent in nature that declaring failure is the key to success. Hey! No wonder it didn't go over. Phil |
In reply to this post by Prof David West
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Hash: SHA1 Prof David West wrote: > Major distraction prevented replying sooner. That's the beauty of e-mail! > "No cultural universals" is the antidote to the disease of ethnocentrism Aha! I hadn't thought of that, at all. So, regardless of the finer points about "universal", abstraction, and such, the proposition "There are no cultural universals" serves as a kind of dialectical tool to pop the audience out of any ethnocentric paradigm they might be in when they first hear it. And, of course, that proposition (neither true nor false, really) would continue to help refine rationale throughout one's research. Very cool. > necro-cannabilism - there is no category change involved at all. In > necro-cannabalism, in fact lineage is acknowledged and serves to set > priorities - I get to consume the remains of my parents and children > before the rest of the band gets their share. Would you mind citing an example of a culture that engaged in necro-cannabalism that acknowledges lineage? I had no idea such cultures existed. Or, if info is plentiful, is "necro-cannabalism" the primary key word? > are made - in the form of "all cultures abhor murder." To deny cultural > universals in this context is simply stating that in the areas of world > view, values, norms, beliefs, and language there is no more universality > across cultures in the abstract than there is in the concrete. Even if > there appears to be syntactic commonality (all cultures believe in the > supernatural) there is not semantic consistency, each culture "means" > something different for the same syntactic expression. I get the point, here, about the grounding changing between any two cultures. However, it's one thing to say that the semantic grounding _changes_, which is a weak argument for locality. It's much stronger to say that, when the semantic grounding changes from one culture to the next, there are no semantic _mappings_ between the two groundings that allow an invariant across any of those mappings. I.e. just because the semantic grounding changes doesn't mean it completely changes. There can be (and are, I suspect) some invariants when mapping the semantic groundings between any _two_ cultures. And I suspect there are invariants when those mappings are applied. That would mean that given any _two_ cultures, there are some identifiable universals (over the set of two). But as we increase the size of the set from two to three to N, the number of those invariants shrinks, perhaps quite rapidly. So, the weak form of "There are no cultural universals" simply acknowledges the uncertainty between any quantification over the set of cultures. But a strong form would precisely specify the quantification (over _all_ cultures, given any 10 cultures, given any 2 cultures, etc.) and it would reserve the word "universal" for "over all cultures". But that would be an idealization or limit process because we're too ignorant of _all_ cultures (I suspect). Is there such a strong argument out there? Do we have some idea of how rapidly invariants fade as the number of cultures is increased? And if the number of invariants stays _pretty_ high over most (almost all) cultures and only collapses after some of the more bizarre cultures are added, then it's reasonable to say that there _are_ some practical (not ideal or theoretical) cultural "universals" (or "almost universals"). > Sometimes it takes time to sort this issue out. Biology has only > recently started to provide the evidence that suggests "hardwired" > causes/origins for common supernatural experiences - neuro-theology. > The supposed "cultural" notions of beauty and sexual attractiveness have > been shown to originate in biological universals like bilateral > symmetry, and the ability to "smell" each other's immune systems. > > Some of the most interesting, and unresolved, data is found in very > basic phenomenon. For example, color perception / color terms in > language. Cultures have 2 - n color terms in their language: > If they have exactly two terms they are always black and white (or > equivalents like, warm and cold) > If they have exactly three terms, the third term is always red - (B > / W / R) > If they have exactly four terms, the fourth is always green - (B / > W / R / G) > Five, the fifth is always brown - (B / W / R / G / Br) > Six, purple - (B / W / R / G / Br / P) > Seven, plus, no pattern. > In the cases 1-6 terms, why the commonality? Biology in the form of > occular perception? Unlikely. Natural Law? Possible, but > unsatisfactory. Culture? Unlikely. But doesn't rationale like this lead one to think that "culture" is, itself, just a convenient packaging of biology? I.e. all culture probably reduces to biology, we're just too ignorant to know _how_? - -- glen e. p. ropella, 971-219-3846, http://tempusdictum.com The world henceforth will be run by synthesizers, people able to put together the right information at the right time, think critically about it, and make important choices. - E.O. Wilson -----BEGIN PGP SIGNATURE----- Version: GnuPG v1.4.6 (GNU/Linux) Comment: Using GnuPG with Mozilla - http://enigmail.mozdev.org iD8DBQFH4AjSpVJZMHoGoM8RAq+2AJ9tq50KcXv5ZwClA0EXV0/yjEduCwCgnkyx yQqZvPLaxygKf944RfpmA3Y= =ftbJ -----END PGP SIGNATURE----- |
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