Re: Subjectivity and intimacy

Posted by John Kennison on Feb 19, 2016; 9:30pm
URL: http://friam.383.s1.nabble.com/Fwd-Complejidad-en-economia-tp7587092p7587094.html

One thing I wonder about (or perhaps have forgotten) in this discussion and Nick's denial is what the denial is based on. Is the absence of subjectivity supposed to be a scientific fact? If so, we should be discussing the experimental foundations of this fact. I have read of some experiments which seem to indicate that subjectiviity is not exactly what we (or what I) used to think it is --but which do not seem to disprove subjectivity.

--John
________________________________________
From: Friam [[hidden email]] on behalf of Russ Abbott [[hidden email]]
Sent: Friday, February 19, 2016 3:27 PM
To: The Friday Morning Applied Complexity Coffee Group
Subject: [FRIAM] Subjectivity and intimacy

We've had discussions on and off about subjectivity -- with me getting frustrated at Nick's denial thereof (if I understood him correctly).

It occurred to me recently that intimacy is defined -- as I understand it -- in terms of subjectivity, i.e., the sharing of one's (most private) subjective experiences with another.

I'm wondering what Nick thinks about this and whether anyone else has something to say about it. In particular, if there is no such thing as subjective experience, does that imply in your view that the same goes for intimacy?

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