actual vs potential ∞

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actual vs potential ∞

gepr

I know I've posted this before. I don't remember it getting any traction with y'all. But it's relevant to my struggles with beliefs in potential vs actual infinity:

  Belief in the Sinularity is Fideistic
  https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007%2F978-3-642-32560-1_19

Not unrelated, I've often been a fan of trying identify *where* an argument goes wrong. And because this post mentions not only 1/0, but Isabelle, Coq [⛧], Idris, and Agda, I figured it might be a good follow-up to our modeling discussion on Friday, including my predisposition against upper ontologies.

  1/0 = 0
  https://www.hillelwayne.com/post/divide-by-zero/

Here's the (really uninformative!) SMMRY L7:
https://smmry.com/https://www.hillelwayne.com/post/divide-by-zero/#&SM_LENGTH=7

> Since 1 0, there is no multiplicative inverse of 0⁻. Okay, now we can talk about division in the reals.
>
> So what's -1 * π? How do you sum up something times? While it would be nice if division didn't have any "Oddness" to it, we can't guarantee that without kneecapping mathematics.
>
> We'll define division as follows: IF b = 0 THEN a/b = 1 ELSE a/b = a * b⁻.
>
> Doing so is mathematically consistent, because under this definition of division you can't take 1/0 = 1 and prove something false.
>
> The problem is in step: our division theorem is only valid for c 0, so you can't go from 1/0 * 0 to 1 * 0/0. The "Denominator is nonzero" clause prevents us from taking our definition and reaching this contradiction.
>
> Under this definition of division step in the counterargument above is now valid: we can say that 1/0 * 0 = 1 * 0/0. However, in step we say that 0/0 = 1.
>
> Ab = cb => a = c but with division by zero we have 1 * 0 = 2 * 0 => 1 = 2.



[⛧] I decided awhile back to focus on Coq because it seems to have libraries of theorems for a large body of standard math. But still NOT having explored it much, yet learning some meta-stuff surrounding the domain(s), I'm really leaning toward Isabelle. I suppose, in the end, I won't learn to use any of it, except to pretend like I know what I'm talking about down at the pub.

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Re: actual vs potential ∞

Frank Wimberly-2
My opinion.  1/0 is undefined.  Depending on the context you can define it in a way that's useful in that context.

To say that   lim(1/x) as x ->0 = infinity means precisely: 

For any r in R, however large, there exists an x in R such that  1/x > r.

Frank

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505 670-9918
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On Mon, Aug 3, 2020, 11:03 AM uǝlƃ ↙↙↙ <[hidden email]> wrote:

I know I've posted this before. I don't remember it getting any traction with y'all. But it's relevant to my struggles with beliefs in potential vs actual infinity:

  Belief in the Sinularity is Fideistic
  https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007%2F978-3-642-32560-1_19

Not unrelated, I've often been a fan of trying identify *where* an argument goes wrong. And because this post mentions not only 1/0, but Isabelle, Coq [⛧], Idris, and Agda, I figured it might be a good follow-up to our modeling discussion on Friday, including my predisposition against upper ontologies.

  1/0 = 0
  https://www.hillelwayne.com/post/divide-by-zero/

Here's the (really uninformative!) SMMRY L7:
https://smmry.com/https://www.hillelwayne.com/post/divide-by-zero/#&SM_LENGTH=7
> Since 1 0, there is no multiplicative inverse of 0⁻. Okay, now we can talk about division in the reals.
>
> So what's -1 * π? How do you sum up something times? While it would be nice if division didn't have any "Oddness" to it, we can't guarantee that without kneecapping mathematics.
>
> We'll define division as follows: IF b = 0 THEN a/b = 1 ELSE a/b = a * b⁻.
>
> Doing so is mathematically consistent, because under this definition of division you can't take 1/0 = 1 and prove something false.
>
> The problem is in step: our division theorem is only valid for c 0, so you can't go from 1/0 * 0 to 1 * 0/0. The "Denominator is nonzero" clause prevents us from taking our definition and reaching this contradiction.
>
> Under this definition of division step in the counterargument above is now valid: we can say that 1/0 * 0 = 1 * 0/0. However, in step we say that 0/0 = 1.
>
> Ab = cb => a = c but with division by zero we have 1 * 0 = 2 * 0 => 1 = 2.



[⛧] I decided awhile back to focus on Coq because it seems to have libraries of theorems for a large body of standard math. But still NOT having explored it much, yet learning some meta-stuff surrounding the domain(s), I'm really leaning toward Isabelle. I suppose, in the end, I won't learn to use any of it, except to pretend like I know what I'm talking about down at the pub.

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Re: actual vs potential ∞

gepr
In reply to this post by gepr
To be a little clearer on my hand-wringing, here is a section where Bringsjord et al argue that belief in the Singularity is not rational:

> A
> (P1) There will be AI (created by HI).
> (P2) If there is AI, there will be AI+ (created by AI).
> (P3) If there is AI+, there will be AI++ (created by AI+).
> )
> There will be AI++ (= S will occur).
> [...]
> Our certainty in
> the lack of certainty here can be established by showing, formally, that the denial
> of (P1) is consistent, since if not-(P1) is consistent, it follows that (P1) doesn’t
> follow from any of the axioms of classical logic and mathematics (for example,
> from a standard axiomatic set theory, such as ZF). How then do we show that not-
> (P1) is consistent? We derive it from a set of premises which are themselves
> consistent. To do this, suppose that human persons are information-processing
> machines more powerful than standard Turing machines, for instance the infinite-
> time Turing machines specified and explored by Hamkins and Lewis (2000), that
> AI (as referred to in A) is based on standard Turing-level information processing,
> and that the process of creating the artificial intelligent machines is itself at the
> level of Turing-computable functions. Under these jointly consistent mathematical
> suppositions, it can be easily proved that AI can never reach the level of human
> persons (and motivated readers with a modicum of understanding of the mathe-
> matics of computer science are encouraged to carry out the proof). So, we know
> that (P1) isn’t certain.


Note the "for instance" of the ∞ time Turing machines, which itself seems to refer to a stable output in the long run that is taken as a non-halting output ... maybe kindasorta like the decimal format of 1/7 ... or Nick's conception of reality 8^D.

I keep thinking, with no decision in sight so far, that Wolpert and Benford's attempt to resolve Roko's Basilisk is related, that there's some underlying set-up that makes the whole controversy dissolve. You'll note the higher-order nature of AI+ and AI++. And if there are some higher-order operators that simply don't operate over potential infinities, what are they? And can we simply define our way out of it, as in defining 1/0 ≡ 0?

On 8/3/20 10:02 AM, uǝlƃ ↙↙↙ wrote:

>
> I know I've posted this before. I don't remember it getting any traction with y'all. But it's relevant to my struggles with beliefs in potential vs actual infinity:
>
>   Belief in the Sinularity is Fideistic
>   https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007%2F978-3-642-32560-1_19
>
> Not unrelated, I've often been a fan of trying identify *where* an argument goes wrong. And because this post mentions not only 1/0, but Isabelle, Coq, Idris, and Agda, I figured it might be a good follow-up to our modeling discussion on Friday, including my predisposition against upper ontologies.
>
>   1/0 = 0
>   https://www.hillelwayne.com/post/divide-by-zero/

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Re: actual vs potential ∞

jon zingale
In reply to this post by gepr
In 2011, my buddy Ralf offered me a summer *artist in residence* in Eugene
Oregon. We attended the 10th Annual Oregon Programming Languages Summer
School[⏧], where a few days were spent in a giant lecture hall full of
mostly young men fiddling with Coq. One night, he and I even ran into
Benjamin Pierce riding his bicycle back from the conference! Agda has always
seemed promising to me, however, its dependence on Emacs has remained a
deterrent for me.

[⏧]
https://www.cs.uoregon.edu/research/summerschool/summer11/curriculum.html



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Re: actual vs potential ∞

Frank Wimberly-2
In reply to this post by Frank Wimberly-2
I might modify this slightly to 

For any r in R, however large, there exists x in R, and epsilon > 0 in R such that  1/x > r for x < epsilon. 

I'm not sure that makes a difference but it may make it clearer. 

On Mon, Aug 3, 2020 at 11:14 AM Frank Wimberly <[hidden email]> wrote:
My opinion.  1/0 is undefined.  Depending on the context you can define it in a way that's useful in that context.

To say that   lim(1/x) as x ->0 = infinity means precisely: 

For any r in R, however large, there exists an x in R such that  1/x > r.

Frank

---
Frank C. Wimberly
140 Calle Ojo Feliz,
Santa Fe, NM 87505

505 670-9918
Santa Fe, NM

On Mon, Aug 3, 2020, 11:03 AM uǝlƃ ↙↙↙ <[hidden email]> wrote:

I know I've posted this before. I don't remember it getting any traction with y'all. But it's relevant to my struggles with beliefs in potential vs actual infinity:

  Belief in the Sinularity is Fideistic
  https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007%2F978-3-642-32560-1_19

Not unrelated, I've often been a fan of trying identify *where* an argument goes wrong. And because this post mentions not only 1/0, but Isabelle, Coq [⛧], Idris, and Agda, I figured it might be a good follow-up to our modeling discussion on Friday, including my predisposition against upper ontologies.

  1/0 = 0
  https://www.hillelwayne.com/post/divide-by-zero/

Here's the (really uninformative!) SMMRY L7:
https://smmry.com/https://www.hillelwayne.com/post/divide-by-zero/#&SM_LENGTH=7
> Since 1 0, there is no multiplicative inverse of 0⁻. Okay, now we can talk about division in the reals.
>
> So what's -1 * π? How do you sum up something times? While it would be nice if division didn't have any "Oddness" to it, we can't guarantee that without kneecapping mathematics.
>
> We'll define division as follows: IF b = 0 THEN a/b = 1 ELSE a/b = a * b⁻.
>
> Doing so is mathematically consistent, because under this definition of division you can't take 1/0 = 1 and prove something false.
>
> The problem is in step: our division theorem is only valid for c 0, so you can't go from 1/0 * 0 to 1 * 0/0. The "Denominator is nonzero" clause prevents us from taking our definition and reaching this contradiction.
>
> Under this definition of division step in the counterargument above is now valid: we can say that 1/0 * 0 = 1 * 0/0. However, in step we say that 0/0 = 1.
>
> Ab = cb => a = c but with division by zero we have 1 * 0 = 2 * 0 => 1 = 2.



[⛧] I decided awhile back to focus on Coq because it seems to have libraries of theorems for a large body of standard math. But still NOT having explored it much, yet learning some meta-stuff surrounding the domain(s), I'm really leaning toward Isabelle. I suppose, in the end, I won't learn to use any of it, except to pretend like I know what I'm talking about down at the pub.

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505 670-9918

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Re: actual vs potential ∞

David Eric Smith
In reply to this post by gepr
This is where folk tales are wonderful.  Out of all the complex clutter of daily life among all the different people, they recognize a big question and put a marker on it by wrapping it in a small story or metaphor, which turns out to have staying power as a meme, because it resonated with what really was a big question.

Are the Celts (or even more specifically, the Irish?)  the only ethnicity that had a specific meme equivalent to a pot of gold at the end of the rainbow?  Or did it convergently evolve in several cultures?

> On Aug 4, 2020, at 2:02 AM, uǝlƃ ↙↙↙ <[hidden email]> wrote:
>
>
> I know I've posted this before. I don't remember it getting any traction with y'all. But it's relevant to my struggles with beliefs in potential vs actual infinity:
>
>  Belief in the Sinularity is Fideistic
>  https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007%2F978-3-642-32560-1_19
>
> Not unrelated, I've often been a fan of trying identify *where* an argument goes wrong. And because this post mentions not only 1/0, but Isabelle, Coq [⛧], Idris, and Agda, I figured it might be a good follow-up to our modeling discussion on Friday, including my predisposition against upper ontologies.
>
>  1/0 = 0
>  https://linkprotect.cudasvc.com/url?a=https%3a%2f%2fwww.hillelwayne.com%2fpost%2fdivide-by-zero%2f&c=E,1,JxsXytueRHA0GCfR0UOa_3uDRb1upQSgWOk-Xn9W0El902gHmLp9YG0abXsverWIfnV9N-7WHZnF5x4UojpbFdwztwOiAwefuhlrHNfbWDzzwCA,&typo=1
>
> Here's the (really uninformative!) SMMRY L7:
> https://linkprotect.cudasvc.com/url?a=https%3a%2f%2fsmmry.com%2fhttps%3a%2f%2fwww.hillelwayne.com%2fpost%2fdivide-by-zero%2f%23%26SM_LENGTH%3d7&c=E,1,ojb4vUe5aPs24YNNGQSrZVPwWP0D69QletaevbLEpj0OxdCjjavwpY9GtAJu5a2Mc1d5Sv4p18nm2y0FjBAFLDAm8jUY5swj5w4XCY72UHrz&typo=1
>> Since 1 0, there is no multiplicative inverse of 0⁻. Okay, now we can talk about division in the reals.
>>
>> So what's -1 * π? How do you sum up something times? While it would be nice if division didn't have any "Oddness" to it, we can't guarantee that without kneecapping mathematics.
>>
>> We'll define division as follows: IF b = 0 THEN a/b = 1 ELSE a/b = a * b⁻.
>>
>> Doing so is mathematically consistent, because under this definition of division you can't take 1/0 = 1 and prove something false.
>>
>> The problem is in step: our division theorem is only valid for c 0, so you can't go from 1/0 * 0 to 1 * 0/0. The "Denominator is nonzero" clause prevents us from taking our definition and reaching this contradiction.
>>
>> Under this definition of division step in the counterargument above is now valid: we can say that 1/0 * 0 = 1 * 0/0. However, in step we say that 0/0 = 1.
>>
>> Ab = cb => a = c but with division by zero we have 1 * 0 = 2 * 0 => 1 = 2.
>
>
>
> [⛧] I decided awhile back to focus on Coq because it seems to have libraries of theorems for a large body of standard math. But still NOT having explored it much, yet learning some meta-stuff surrounding the domain(s), I'm really leaning toward Isabelle. I suppose, in the end, I won't learn to use any of it, except to pretend like I know what I'm talking about down at the pub.
>
> --
> ↙↙↙ uǝlƃ
>
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Re: actual vs potential ∞

gepr
Yes! And playing that same note (along with cargo cults, mnemonics, and the specialness/detail-preservation of narrativity), I committed to posting that I was wrong and Jon's *epiphenomena* are appropriately named (based primarily on the oracle-sort idea (I like "oracle" better than "key") [⛧]. But near the end, I asked EricC whether or not evolutionary biologists have a typical way of speaking about contingency/ancillary/contextual causation as opposed to, for lack of a better word, driven causation. I think I asked that as a result of Jon's suggestion that *mystery* isn't fundamental, here. I've forgotten how EricC actually responded. But while responding, the concepts of "critical path", polyphenism, and robustness was what came to mind. And now I think I'm wrong about being wrong. [⛤]

It often seems that such folk tales exhibit some universality (e.g. virgin births or Jungian archetypes). But it's difficult for someone like me to a) guess at their cross-culture applicability and b) guess at which contingent causes have to be dragged along as the narrative moves from one detail-rich context to another ... like so many privileged post-yuppies saying Namaste after their Hot Yoga.



[⛧] That idea being to shuffle a list, you place the items to be shuffled into a key-value map where the keys are drawn from a [pseudo-]random or arbitrary number source, then extract the ordered values and toss the keys. There's structure there, but it would have to be *reconstructed*.

[⛤] My dad used to be accused of never admitting he was wrong. So, he often told the minimalist-for-him joke: "I was wrong once. Then it turned out I was right."

On 8/3/20 2:44 PM, David Eric Smith wrote:
> This is where folk tales are wonderful.  Out of all the complex clutter of daily life among all the different people, they recognize a big question and put a marker on it by wrapping it in a small story or metaphor, which turns out to have staying power as a meme, because it resonated with what really was a big question.
>
> Are the Celts (or even more specifically, the Irish?)  the only ethnicity that had a specific meme equivalent to a pot of gold at the end of the rainbow?  Or did it convergently evolve in several cultures?

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